Is there a difference between the USSR invading Afghanistan in early 80s?
and the popular occupation of Afghanistan?
Back then the mujahadeen were made out in many Western news sources to be noble "Davids" fighting the Soviet "Goliath".
Now the sons of those tribesmen, fighting another occupying press are painted as terrorists, yet I don't know if any Afghanis were involved the attacks of September 11.
Is this a case of selective bias by these same news sources?
But Sith-Christ: think about the causes of the attacks of the 11th of September then rethink your answer
Bob- how many Afghanis hijacked aircraft that day? Weren't they almost exclusively Saudi citizens?
Militarily speaking they are equal. Both equity the same goal. Establish and surrport and indegineous goverment with similar political beliefs, and to curb Islamic extermism.
Comparing the two transgression by using press and media reports from western nations during the 1980s is faulty. When looking at those reports you must take into thoughtfulness the relationship between the west and the USSR. That was during the Cold War when most western nations view the USSR as a very real and very threatening threat and enemy. Any news and media reports would naturally be slanted to show them in an evil light. It is doubtful that the media reports would have had the same demonization had any other coutry (except peradventure China) invaded.
Bob, the Russian invasion could be considered provoked. Despite claims of nation building, or the store of buffer zones, the true reason catalyst for the invasion was initiated by Afghanis. A group of Afghni militants stormed a Russian sect campus and beheaded the teachers and their families. The reason for this attack was the fact that the Russian instructors were promoting literacy among Afghani women.
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